Hello all,
Since my last post here, I have gotten some more information about my condition. Specifically, the eye issue that prompted the initial investigation of my symptoms has been diagnosed by a retinal specialist as a very rare eye disorder. Aside from visual disturbances, I have no neurological symptoms.
The MRI that was taken to help diagnose my strange visual symptoms showed "nonspecific" white matter hyperintensities possibly suggestive of demyelination in the brain only, not the spinal cord. These were "periventricular" and "subcortical" according to the report. There were no enhancing lesions on the scan. I was referred to a neurologist, who ordered further testing. I just got back the results of an LP and VEP, which are both normal. All of my lab results (bloodwork) are normal.
Nevertheless, the neurologist strongly believes on the basis of the MRI that I already have (or will soon have) MS. He believes that the MRI, in his experience, very much looks like the MRI of an MS patient.
However, one thing he said really confused me. He said that my CSF was probably positive for oligoclonal bands in the past, but negative now, because I don't have any active inflammation. He said that oligoclonal bands can come and go, and are typically only present during active inflammation. This is not the impression I have gotten from my independent reading. Could anyone please refer me to a reputable source that can either confirm or deny this? A research paper, for instance, would be great. I really appreciate all of your help and advice.
And yes, I want to get a second opinion from an MS specialist, but that is easier said than done around here (and with my particular insurance.)
Since my last post here, I have gotten some more information about my condition. Specifically, the eye issue that prompted the initial investigation of my symptoms has been diagnosed by a retinal specialist as a very rare eye disorder. Aside from visual disturbances, I have no neurological symptoms.
The MRI that was taken to help diagnose my strange visual symptoms showed "nonspecific" white matter hyperintensities possibly suggestive of demyelination in the brain only, not the spinal cord. These were "periventricular" and "subcortical" according to the report. There were no enhancing lesions on the scan. I was referred to a neurologist, who ordered further testing. I just got back the results of an LP and VEP, which are both normal. All of my lab results (bloodwork) are normal.
Nevertheless, the neurologist strongly believes on the basis of the MRI that I already have (or will soon have) MS. He believes that the MRI, in his experience, very much looks like the MRI of an MS patient.
However, one thing he said really confused me. He said that my CSF was probably positive for oligoclonal bands in the past, but negative now, because I don't have any active inflammation. He said that oligoclonal bands can come and go, and are typically only present during active inflammation. This is not the impression I have gotten from my independent reading. Could anyone please refer me to a reputable source that can either confirm or deny this? A research paper, for instance, would be great. I really appreciate all of your help and advice.
And yes, I want to get a second opinion from an MS specialist, but that is easier said than done around here (and with my particular insurance.)
Comment