Hi all,
I understand that no one can diagnose me over the Internet; I'm simply looking for some guidance. I appreciate your thoughts and advice in advance. I'm 26yo, healthy, no existing conditions. Roughly 6 months ago, one night I experienced difficulty swallowing food. It's almost as if the food would pause before I would begin swallowing, and I couldn't initiate the action. The problem was only with solid foods, and lasted for a couple of weeks (during this time, there were a few days where I could eat solid foods just fine). Since then, the problem has been intermittent, but for the most part, seems to have improved/occurred far less frequently. I had seen a gastro and ENT with no luck, so I was finally referred to a neuro. My biggest fear was having some sort of neurological disorder.
The neurologist definitely did not think this sounded like a neurological disorder, but ordered a brain MRI w/wo contrast to be on the safe side. I received the results a few days ago, as seen below:
"The ventricles and extra-axial spaces are normal in size for the patients age. There is no intracranial hemorrhage, hydrocephalus, or mass effect. There is no acute infarction. There are approximately 12 small foci of T2 hyperintensity the peripheral white matter of the paramedian anterior frontal lobes. The appearance is non specific. In a patient of this age, the finding most likely represents sequelae of chronic migraine headaches. Less likely, this may represent chronic micro vascular ischemic changes. **There is no specific evidence of demyelinating disease, however, the possibility of demyelinating disease should also be considered due to the patients age. There is no old infarction. There is no Chiari malformation or hindbrain herniation.
Impression: Small nonspecific foci of T2 hyperintensity in the frontal subcortical white matter as described above. In a patient of this age, the finding most likely represents sequelae of chronic migraine headaches. The T2 changes on the MRI do not appear to be suggestive of any specific neurologic diagnosis. They are not worrisome".
While the overall impression seems good, the bolded part has me concerned. I'm trying not to search the depths of Google, but my initial searches lead me to believe that any sort of hyperintensity at my age is not normal. Also, in the last week or so, I've noticed that I sometimes wake up with my left foot tingling, though this could all just be in my head due to the MRI results. This all obviously has me freaked out. Would I be crazy for seeking out a second opinion given the above? Any other advice is appreciated. Thank you all.
I understand that no one can diagnose me over the Internet; I'm simply looking for some guidance. I appreciate your thoughts and advice in advance. I'm 26yo, healthy, no existing conditions. Roughly 6 months ago, one night I experienced difficulty swallowing food. It's almost as if the food would pause before I would begin swallowing, and I couldn't initiate the action. The problem was only with solid foods, and lasted for a couple of weeks (during this time, there were a few days where I could eat solid foods just fine). Since then, the problem has been intermittent, but for the most part, seems to have improved/occurred far less frequently. I had seen a gastro and ENT with no luck, so I was finally referred to a neuro. My biggest fear was having some sort of neurological disorder.
The neurologist definitely did not think this sounded like a neurological disorder, but ordered a brain MRI w/wo contrast to be on the safe side. I received the results a few days ago, as seen below:
"The ventricles and extra-axial spaces are normal in size for the patients age. There is no intracranial hemorrhage, hydrocephalus, or mass effect. There is no acute infarction. There are approximately 12 small foci of T2 hyperintensity the peripheral white matter of the paramedian anterior frontal lobes. The appearance is non specific. In a patient of this age, the finding most likely represents sequelae of chronic migraine headaches. Less likely, this may represent chronic micro vascular ischemic changes. **There is no specific evidence of demyelinating disease, however, the possibility of demyelinating disease should also be considered due to the patients age. There is no old infarction. There is no Chiari malformation or hindbrain herniation.
Impression: Small nonspecific foci of T2 hyperintensity in the frontal subcortical white matter as described above. In a patient of this age, the finding most likely represents sequelae of chronic migraine headaches. The T2 changes on the MRI do not appear to be suggestive of any specific neurologic diagnosis. They are not worrisome".
While the overall impression seems good, the bolded part has me concerned. I'm trying not to search the depths of Google, but my initial searches lead me to believe that any sort of hyperintensity at my age is not normal. Also, in the last week or so, I've noticed that I sometimes wake up with my left foot tingling, though this could all just be in my head due to the MRI results. This all obviously has me freaked out. Would I be crazy for seeking out a second opinion given the above? Any other advice is appreciated. Thank you all.
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