Hello everyone,
I'm a 52 y.o. woman and I developed symptoms this late winter -- burning sensations, restless legs, tinnitus, jerking when falling asleep. I've had the burning sensations twice before (2011 and 1995) and have had anaphylactic allergic reactions for 20 years.
First neuro did C-spine MRI which showed pinched nerve. I asked him about MS and I could tell he thought I was hypochondriacal/menopausal.
"Passed" the neuro exam with second neuro who said I didn't present as MS and most cases are diagnosed before age 50. I asked for brain MRI and she reluctantly agreed to one. Yesterday she called me and told me results were normal. Today I received my copy of the report in mail. It reads: "There are mild scattered punctate foci of T2 such FLAIR hyperintense signal within the cerebral white matter. These lesions are nonspecific in nature and similar findings can be seen in the setting of migraine headaches, gliosis from prior infectious/inflammatory processes, chronic small vessel ischemic change, vasculitis or demyleination. Statistically, these lesions likely reflect chronic small vessel ischemic change in a patient of this age." I've googled these terms, but would appreciate more help. I'm calling the neuro tomorrow. How can this result be "normal"?! Especially given my symptoms.
I've never had migraines, although this winter I did start waking up with headaches. Also have had periods of depression. Prior to symptoms this winter, I was experiencing panic attacks and depression.
Sorry to be so long, but I feel really let down by this doctor and am looking for a new one.
Thanks in advance for your help.
I'm a 52 y.o. woman and I developed symptoms this late winter -- burning sensations, restless legs, tinnitus, jerking when falling asleep. I've had the burning sensations twice before (2011 and 1995) and have had anaphylactic allergic reactions for 20 years.
First neuro did C-spine MRI which showed pinched nerve. I asked him about MS and I could tell he thought I was hypochondriacal/menopausal.
"Passed" the neuro exam with second neuro who said I didn't present as MS and most cases are diagnosed before age 50. I asked for brain MRI and she reluctantly agreed to one. Yesterday she called me and told me results were normal. Today I received my copy of the report in mail. It reads: "There are mild scattered punctate foci of T2 such FLAIR hyperintense signal within the cerebral white matter. These lesions are nonspecific in nature and similar findings can be seen in the setting of migraine headaches, gliosis from prior infectious/inflammatory processes, chronic small vessel ischemic change, vasculitis or demyleination. Statistically, these lesions likely reflect chronic small vessel ischemic change in a patient of this age." I've googled these terms, but would appreciate more help. I'm calling the neuro tomorrow. How can this result be "normal"?! Especially given my symptoms.
I've never had migraines, although this winter I did start waking up with headaches. Also have had periods of depression. Prior to symptoms this winter, I was experiencing panic attacks and depression.
Sorry to be so long, but I feel really let down by this doctor and am looking for a new one.
Thanks in advance for your help.
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